Tuesday 24 April 2012

IAS (CSAT) தேர்வுக்கான முக்கிய கேள்வி - பதில்கள் !



 1. A businessman makes a profit of 20% on the sale of
leather. If he were to add 10% artificial matter to the leather, by
what percent would his profit increase?
(a) 25% (b) 60%
(c) 40% (d) 45%

Answer (b)

2. The value of a - [b - {c - (a - b - c)}j is
(a) a+ b+c
(b) a - b-c
(c) 1
(d) °

Answer (c)

3. In triangle ABC, if L.A = 1200 and AB = BC, then L.B and L.C will be respectively -
(a) 60°, 30°

(b) 30°, 40°

(c) 30°, 30°

(d) 20°, 40°

Answer (c)

4. In a team, eight boys play Chess. The
remaining boys, who represent 7 times the
square root of the strength of the tem, play Mouth organ.
What is the strength of the team?
(a) 36 (b) 16
(c) 64 (d) 100

Answer (c)
5. Cost price of 15 Computers is equal to the selling price of
20 Computers, then the loss percent would be
(a) 25% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) 45%

Answer (a)



6.  The length of the minute hand of a clock is 12 cm. Then the area swept by the minute hand in one minute will be
(a) 22•12 cm2
(b) 23•10 cm2
(c) 24•12 cm2
(d) None of the above

Answer (d)

7. How many natural numbers between 1 and 900 are multiples of any of the numbers 2, 3, or 5?
1. 240 2. 250 3. 270 4. 300
(a) 1 & 2
(b) only 1
(c) 2, 3 & 4
(d) none of the above

Answer (c)
8. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk ?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Green

Answer (c)

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(a) Silver
(b) Gold
(c) Nickel
(d) Brass

Answer (d)

10. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(a) 5#@7%
(b) 8#@7%
(c) 8#@%5
(d) 8@75%

Answer (b)

11. In a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(a) 39
(b) 38
(c) 37
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer (b)

12. If the function f : I --? R, f(x) = log x then the value of f(x) + f(y) is
(a) f(xy)
(b) f(x+ y)
(c) f (x/y)
(d) f(y/x)

Answer (c)

12. What is the median of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16?
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11

Answer (b)

13. The coordinates of the mid- point on joining the points P (4, 6) and Q (- 4, 8) will be -
(a) (2, 7)
(b) (7, 2)
(c) (7, 0)
(d) (0, 7)

Answer (d)



In the following questions, you are given situations. Based on the situations and your job responsibilities provided to you, give your decisions:
14. You are the administrative head of an area and your primary responsibility includes maintaining law and order and ensuring development of the area. A big car manufacturing company is setting up its car-manufacturing unit in the area and there is a group of people that opposes the setting up to the plant. This group feels that they didn’t get a fair deal when their land was transferred to the car manufacturing company. They are demanding that either more compensation be paid or their land be returned to them. A regional political party has also supported their demand and they are protesting against the company. The situation is on the brink of explosion and can turn ugly any moment. What would be the best possible way to take care of this whole issue?

(a) convince the group that the compensation given to them is in accordance with the government guidelines and any demand for more compensation is unjustified
(b) assess the potential loss caused to the people whose land got transferred to the company for setting up of the plant and work out the compensation package involving both the parties in the calculations
(c) bar the political party from participating in the protests so as to preempt any ugly situation
(d) ask the car manufacturing company to provide employment to those whose land has been taken away

Answer (b)
15. You are the District Magistrate of an economically backward area and your primary responsibility is tomaintain law and order and to ensure regional development. You find that your predecessor, in order to promote development, has installed a complex economic strategy and control structure for monitoring various development projects. This structure has earned him a lot of praise from his superiors. However, you have realized that the model is very complex and most of your subordinates, who implement things on the ground, do not understand the model at all. What would you do?

(a) come up with your own strategy of project monitoring which is independent of the previous strategy
(b) try to implement the strategy of your predecessor strictly as the model has received a lot of praise
(c) try to clarify the monitoring model to your subordinates so that they can understand the various nuances
(d) devise some ways to resolve the complexity of the project-monitoring model without diluting the core spirit of it

Answer (d)


16. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of - 17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(a) 270
(b) 240
(c) 170
(d) 200

Answer (d)

17. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(a) Father
(b) Uncle
(c) Cousin
(d) Brother

Answer (d)

18. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(a) D
(b) R
(c) M
(d) X

Answer (d)

Monday 16 April 2012

IAS தேர்வுக்கான முக்கிய பொது அறிவு கேள்வி பதில்கள்



1.   Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 3 April 2012 released 'Quarterly Statistics on Deposits and Credit of Scheduled Commercial Banks, September 2011. Which of the following facts are not true with respect to the mentioned statement?

1.    The data included in the release were based on Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-10 received from all scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs)

2.    The number of banked centres of Scheduled Commercial banks stood at 35,435. 27,913 of these centres were single office centres and 68 centres had 100 or more bank offices

3.    State Bank of India and its Associates accounted for 21.8 per cent of the aggregate deposits

4.    the credit-deposit (C-D) ratio of All Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) at all India level as on 30 September 2011 stood at 74.4 per cent

a.    Only 1
b.    2 & 3
c.    Only 4
d.    3 & 4

Answer: (a)

2. India's exports grew by what per cent in February 2012 to USD 24.6 billion marking the slowest growth in three months?
a.    3%
b.    4.2%
c.    3.7%
d.    5.1%

Answer:  (b)

3. As per the Ernst & Young’s quarterly Rapid Growth Markets Forecast (RGMF), India is likely to grow at what per cent in calendar year (CY) 2012?
a.    7%
b.    7.5%
c.    6.1%
d.    6.6%

Answer: (c)

4.    Reserve Bank of India on 3 April 2012 tightened the reporting requirements of the banks to monitor gold import. Consider the statements given below and which of the following is true?
1.    As per the directions issued, banks will have to submit a monthly statement informing the central bank about the quantity of gold imported as well as the mode of payment adopted
2.    The directive was issued amidst concerns of huge outflow of foreign exchange on import of gold which is believed to be putting pressure on the India's current account deficit (CAD).
a.    Only 1
b.    Only 2
c.    Both 1 & 2
d.    None of the above

Answer: (c)
5.    Which body on 31 March 2012 issued broad guidelines on Algorithmic Trading. Based on recommendations of technical advisory committee (TAC) and secondary market advisory committee (SMAC)?
a.    IRDA
b.    RBI
c.    ASSOCHAM
d.    SEBI

Answer: (d)

6. India recently signed an agreement on technology transfer with____ .

(1) Egypt

(2) Oman

(3) Sudan

(4) United Arab Emirates


7. How many pacts did India sign with China during Chinese Premier Wen Jiabao’s visit to India?

(1) Six Pacts

(2) Seven Pacts

(3) Ten Pacts

(4) Nine Pacts


8. Civil Aviation Ministry has declared to celebrate its Centenary Year during____ .

(1) 2010-11

(2) 2011-12

(3) 2012-13

(4) 2011


9. India has became a part of $ 10 billion Gas pipeline project, the project is backed by-

(1) Russia

(2) U. S. A.

(3) England

(4) Japan


10. The Union Government has recently Project-15 B which is related to-

(1) Defence Programme

(2) Social Programme

(3) Initiating Dialogue with J & K separatists

(4) Telangana Issue



11. Government has declared to stop the circulation of 25 paise coin w.e.f.-

(1) April 1, 2011

(2) June 1, 2011

(3) June 30, 2011

(4) September 30, 2011


12. Srikrishna Committee recently submitted its report on-

(1) Telangana Issue

(2) Tax Reforms

(3) Kashmir Problem

(4) Naxal Issue



13. Indian Army’s Operation Saiyam (patience) was related to-

(1) Kashmir

(2) Scrap Ammunition

(3) North East

(4) None of the above


INTERNATIONAL





14. Taliban militants on ____ shot dead Pakistan’s only Christian government minister for challenging a law that mandates the death penalty for insulting Islam.

(1) 2 March, 2011

(2) 3 March, 2011

(3) 5 March, 2011

(4) 10 March, 2011


15. Nobel laureate Mohammed Yonus, a celebrated pioneer of macro-finance was on ____ forced out from the Grameen Bank (Bangladesh).

(1) 1 March, 2011

(2) 2 March, 2011

(3) 3 March, 2011

(4) 5 March, 2011


16. Which country’s strongman Muammar Gaddafi vowed 2 March, 2011 to fight an uprising against his 41 year rule to “the last man, the last woman”?

(1) Libya

(2) Kenya

(3) Egypt

(4) Tunisia


17. Consider the following statements:

(a) The Gallup world happiness survey ranks Denmark as the happiest nation.

(b) India at 115 out of 155 countries

(c) China at 125 out of 155 countries.

(d) Pakistan at 58 out of 155 countries.

(e) Finland at 2nd and Norway at 3rd.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a) and (e)

(2) Only (b) and (c)

(3) Only (c) and (d)

(4) All of the above


18. Consider the following statements:

(a) Muammar Gaddafi came to power in a bloodless military coup in 1959 when the toppled king Idris.

(b) Once called the “Mad dog of the Middle East”.

(c) Libya’s often flamboyantly dressed ruler. Has held power for 42 years.

(d) Tripoli is the capital of Libya.

Which of the statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c) and (d)

(4) All of the above.


19. World’s tallest building is-

(1) Effie Tower

(2) Burj Khalifa

(3) Statue of Liberty

(4) Qutab Minar


20. The 16th Conference of Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) recently concluded in-

(1) New Delhi

(2) Cancun

(3) New York

(4) Osaka


21. ‘Nomadic Elephant’ was the joint military exercise recently held in India between India and-

(1) Malaysia

(2) Mongolia

(3) Indonesia

(4) Sri Lanka


22. Which country has emerged as the top Migrant Destination Country?

(1) U .S .A

(2)Russia

(3) Japan

(4) Australia


23. The third summit of BRIC is scheduled to be organized in China in-

(1) April 2011

(2) May 2011

(3) June 2011

(4) July 2011


24. Which of the following economy has been rated as the freest economy in the world for the 17th consecutive year?

(1) Singapore

(2) Hong Kong

(3) United States

(4) South Korea


25. As per UNO’s declaration, the year 2011 is being celebrated as International Year of –

(1) Youth

(2) Women Empowerment

(3) Forests

(4) Global Economic Co-operation


STATE


26. A ____ court’s decision to award death to 11 of the 31 convicts in the Godhra Case bound to trigger a debate on the desirability of capital punishment.

(1) bihar

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Gujarat

(4) Maharashtra


27. Vasundhra Raje was elected unopposed as the leader of the BJP Legislature party of Rajasthan on ____ .

(1) 26 February, 2011

(2) 27 February. 2011

(3) 28 February, 2011

(4) 1 March, 2011


28. India’s first Coast Guard Academy would be set up at Azheekkal near Kannur in ____.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Kerala

(4) Tamil Nadu


29. The four day Goa Carnival is celebrated on ___.

(1) 5 March, 2011 to 9 March, 2011

(2) 6 March, 2011 to 10 March, 2011

(3) 7 March, 2011 to 11 March, 2011

(4) 8 March, 2011 to 12 March, 2011


30. Who is the Chief Minister of West Bengal?

(1) Budhadev Bhatacharya

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Mamata Banerjee

(4) None of these


31. Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu?

(1) Jaya Lalita

(2) M. Karunanidhi

(3) Stalin

(4) Kanimoghi


IMPORTANT PERSONS, BOOK AUTHORS & AWARDS AND SO ON.





32. Who is the CMD of Indian Overseas Bank?

(1) Narendra Bhatiya

(2) M. Narendra

(3) M. Damodaran

(4) M. Piyush


33. Who is the PMEA Chairman?

(1) C. Rangarajan

(2) Chandra Kochhar

(3) C. Ranganathan

(4) C. Raman


34. Who is the MD & CEO of ICICI Bank?

(1) Chanda Chopra

(2) Chanda Kochhar

(3) Shobhana Baratiya

(4) Chanda Mathur


35. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I (Oscar-2011 Awards)

(a) Best Actor

(b) Best Actress

(c) Best Supporting Actor

(d) Best Supporting Actress

List-II (Person)

(1) Colin Firth ‘The King’s Speech’

(2) Natalie Portman ‘Black Swan’

(3) Christian Bale

(4) Melissa Leo

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 4 2 3

(4) 4 3 2 1


36. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I (Oscar-2011 Awards)

(a) Best Director

(b) Best Foreign Film director

(c) Best Motion Picture

(d) Best Foreign Film

List-II (Awardee)

(1) Tom Hooper

(2) Susanne Bier

(3) The King’s Speech

(4) A Better World

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 2 1


37. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I (Book)

(a) From Green to Evergreen Revolution

(b)Human Rights Inhuman Wrongs

(c) The Truth about Trade

(d) Effective Public relations and Media Strategy

List-II (Writer)

(1) M .S. Swaminathan

(2) Vidya Das

(3) Clive George

(4) C .V. Narasimha

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 1 2 3

(4) 3 4 1 2


38. Who was the Chairman of the panel constituted to study the recommendation of National Advisory Council (NAC) on the proposed Food Security Bill?

(1) Montek Singh Ahluwaliah

(2) Pranab Mukherjee

(3) C. Rangarajan

(4) Deepak Parikh


39. S. K. Tripathy has been appointed as the new head/chief of –

(1) Central Bureau of Investigation

(2) Research and Analysis Wing.

(3) National Advisory Council

(4) None of the above


40. The author of ‘The China syndrome: Grappling with Uneasy Relationship is –

(1) Harsh V. Pant

(2) Sara Dbow

(3) Era Sezhiyan

(4) Y. V. Reddy


41. Central Excise Day is celebrated of –

(1) February 24

(2) February 28

(3) March 31

(4) April 1


42. Satyanand Mishra has been appointed as the new –

(1) Chief Information Commissioner

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Chief of Research and Analysis Wing

(4) None of the above


43. Who wrote the famous book “Global Crisis Recession and Uneven recovery” on various issues on global recession?

(1) C. Rangrajan

(2) Montek Singh Ahluwaliah

(3) Amritya Sen

(4) Y. B. Reddy


SPORTS


44. Consider the following statements about world Cup Cricket:

(a) Kevin O’Brien made World Cup history by hitting the competition’s fastest century i.e. 100 of 50 balls.

(b) Bettered Aussie Mathew Hayden’s 66-ball century in 2007 edition.

(c) Pakistan’s Shahid Afridi holds record for fastest ODI hundred ever (in 37 balls).

(d) O’ Brien’s is sixth overall.

(e) Kevin O’Brien celebrated his century in Bangalore on 2 March 2011.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (c) and (d)

(3) Only (a) and (e)

(4) All of the above


45. Sports Minister Ajay Maken on ____ announced the programme named “Operation Excellence London 2012” to in build up to the next year’s Olympic Games with an aim to strengthen the medal winners after their record breaking performances at the recently concluded commonwealth and Asian Games.

(1) 3 March, 2011

(2) 4 March, 2011

(3) 5 March, 2011

(4) 6 March, 2011


46. Who become the first century in Xth World Cup Cricket (2011).

(1) Virender Sehwag

(2) Virat Kohli

(3) Sachin Tendulkar

(4) Andrew Strauss


47. Who is the Captain of Australia (World Cup Cricket):

(1) Ricky Ponting

(2) Mycle Clark

(3) Bret Lee

(4) None of these


48. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-I (World Cup Cricket 2011 Captain)

(a) A. Strauss

(b) Shahid Afridi

(c) S. Al Hasan

(d) G. Smith

List-II (Country)

(1) England

(2) Pakistan

(3) Bangladesh

(4) South Africa

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 3 4 1 2

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 4 3 2 1


49. The Mascot of World Cup Cricket (2011) is –

(1) Dumpy

(2) Stumpy

(3) Appy

(4) Buppy


50. India’s Youngest Grand Master (Chess) is –

(1) Sourav Ghosal

(2) Parimarjan Negi

(3) S.P. Sethuraman

(4) None of the above


51. The host of 2018 World Cup of Football is –

(1) Qatar

(2) Russia

(3) Japan

(4) India


52. The Winner of Ashes (series) of cricket is –

(1) England

(2) Australia

(3) Zimbabwe

(4) Kenya


SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY


53. A _____ physicist and two USA Scientists have solved a 400-year-old mystery on the working of the Sun, offering a solution that could help predict space weather and plan space missions.

(1) Delhi

(2) Patna

(3) Kolkatta

(4) Chennai


54. Consider the following statements about National Science Day:

(a) The National Science Day is celebrated on 28 February, 2011.

(b) The day is celebrated every year to mark the discovery of Raman Effect by sir C .V. Raman in 1928, for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize.

(c) Aimed at focusing attention on India Science & Scientists and their role in India’s development.

Which of those above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


55. Aquaphobia is the term associated with –

(1) Water

(2) Land

(3) Ocean

(4) Well


56. India’s first Atomic Power Plant is

(1) Tarapur

(2) Mumbai

(3) Narora

(4) Chennai


57. Food inflation declined by more than one percentage point to ____ for the week ended February 19, 2011, led by a declined in prices of onions, potatoes and pulses.

(1) 9.39%

(2) 8.39%

(3) 10.39%

(4) 11.39%


58. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukerjee presented the Union Budget for 2011-12 on ___

(1) 28 February, 2011

(2) 27 February, 2011

(3) 26 February, 2011

(4) 1 March, 2011


59. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukerjee presented the Economic Survey (2011-12) on ____.

(1) 26 February, 2011

(2) 25 February, 2011

(3) 27 February, 2011

(4) 28 February, 2011


60. Union Rail Minister Mamata Banerjee presented the Rail Budget (2011-12) on____.

(1) 25 February, 2011

(2) 26 February, 2011

(3) 27 February, 2011

(4) 28 February, 2011


61. Milk Production-currently 112 million tonne- has been increasing steadily by about ____ million tonne a year

(1) 2.5

(2) 3.5

(3) 4.5

(4) 5.5


62. Wages paid to Mahamta Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has now been linked with –

(1) Wholesale Price Index

(2) Consumer Price Index for Agriculture Labour

(3) Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers

(4) Food Inflation


63. ‘IMPS’ is a new term being used in banking sector Its full form is –

(1) Indian Money Payment Service

(2) Interbank Mobile Payment Service

(3) International Money Payment Service

(4) International Mobile Payment Service


64. Which of the following airways company has been acquired by South Indis’s Sun Group?

(1) Spice Jet

(2) IndiGo

(3) Go Air

(4) Jet Airways


65. The Sixth Economic Census is being done in 2011. What was the year of the first Economic Census?

(1) 1951

(2) 1961

(3) 1971

(4) 1977


RAILWAY BUDGET 2011-12

66. Who is the financial commissioner of Railway Board?

(1) Samar Jha

(2) Sameer Jha

(3) Samresh Yadav

(4) Somnath Banerjee


67. The Railway have projected an increase in passenger earnings by over ___ per cent to Rs. 30,456 crore.

(1) 15.5

(2) 16.5

(3) 17.5

(4) 18.5


68. During financial year 2010-11, with 5.3 percent increase in passenger numbers, the railway’s revenue is set to grow ___ percent.

(1) 11.2

(2) 12.2

(3) 13.3

(4) 14.2


69. Consider the following statements about Railway Budget (2010-11):

(1) Mamata Banerjee announced no increase in freight rates.

(2) The Railway has projected a 9.8 percent growth in freight earnings at Rs. 68,260 crore during 2011-12.

(3) They are targeting a 7.4 percent jump in freight carriage to 993 million tones during 2011-12.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


70. The Railway surplus is expected to increase ____ percent to Rs. 258.41 crore in 2011-12 Rs. 4,104.50 crore in 2010-11.

(1) 18

(2) 20

(3) 28

(4) 30


71. The Plan outlay for 2011-12 has been fixed at Rs. 57, 630, an increase of almost ___ percent, from Rs. 41,642 crore in the current year.

(1) 20

(2) 40

(3) 30

(4) 50


72. According to Railway Budget (2010-11), Private investment to Contribute Rs. ____ crore.

(1) 1,776

(2) 1,876

(3) 1,676

(4) 1,976


73. Railway Minister has set aside Rs. ____crore for new railway lines.

(1) 5,583

(2) 6,583

(3) 9,583

(4) 5,400


74. Railway Minister has set aside Rs. _____ crore for doubling the lines.

(1) 5,406

(2) 4,406

(3) 6,406

(4) 7,406


75. Railway Minister has set aside Rs. _____ crore for gauge conversion projects.

(1) 12,820

(2) 13,820

(3) 14,820

(4) 15,820


76. Consider the following statements about Railway Budget (2011-12):

(a) 56 new express trains, three new Shatabdis and nine new Duronto trains during 2011-12, besides 47 additional suburban sevices in Mumbai and 50 new suburban services for Kolkata.

(b) AC double decker services will be introduced on Jaipur Delhi and Ahmedabad-Mumbai.

(c) Services of 33 trains will be extended while frequency of 17 trains will be extended.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


77. Railway Minister Mamata Banerjee announced ____ MW gas based power plant at Thakurli in Maharastra for meeting railway requirements.
(1) 400

(2) 500

(3) 700

(4) 900


78. Mamata Banerjee announced additional mechanized laundry units will be set up at ____, Chandigarh and Bhopal for improving the quality of linen in trains.

(1) Kolkata

(2) Nagpur

(3) Raipur

(4) Kanpur


79. Railway minister proposed non-lapsable fund for socially desirable projects under the name of –

(1) Pradhan Mantri Rail Vikas Yojana

(2) Sonia Gandhi Rail Vikas Yojana

(3) Mamata Banerjee Rail Vikas Yojana

(4) Rajeev Gandhi Rail Vikas Yojana


80. A multipurpose pan-India smart card ____ will be introduced very soon to provide single window package to seamlessly pay for tickets for long distance, suburban, metro travelling.

(1) Come India

(2) Go India

(3) True India

(4) Rail India


81. Booking through this portal would be cheaper with a charge of only Rs. ____ for AC classes and Rs. 5 for others.

(1) 18

(2) 16

(3) 15

(4) 10


82. The Railway target to load 993 million tones (mt) goods earning Rs. ____ crore during 2011-12.

(1) 68,260 crore

(2) 65,620 crore

(3) 62,620 crore

(4) 69,620 crore


83. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(Items)

(a) Total Receipts

(b) Total Working Expenses

(c) Total Expenditure

(d) Excess/Shortfall

List-II (Railway Budget Estimates in Rs. crore) – (2011-12)

(1) 109,393.13

(2) 96,450

(3) 97,400

(4) 5,258.41

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 1 2 3

(4) 3 1 4 2


84. According to Railway Budget (2011-12), ratio of net revenue to capital-at-charge and investment from capital fund are ____.

(1) 7.6%

(2) 5.6%

(3) 6.6%

(4) 4.6%


85. According to Railway Budget (2011-12), the operating ratio is ___.

(1) 91.1%

(2) 81.1%

(3) 71.1%

(4) 61.1%


86. Indian Railways all set to add 29,000 employees in the coming financial year, including ____ ex-servicemen.

(1) 15,000

(2) 16,000

(3) 17,000

(4) 18,000


87. According to Railway Budget (2011-12), the India Railways have ____PSUs (public sector undertakings) under it.

(1) 11

(2) 12

(3) 13

(4) 14


88. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(States)

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Maharastra

(c) Gujrat

(d) West Bengal

List-II (Share of New Train in Railway Budget (2011-12)

(1) 12

(2) 21

(3) 12

(4) 29

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 4 3 2 1


89. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(States)

(a) Orissa

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Kerala

(d) Bihar

List-II (Share of New Train in Railway Budget (2011-12)

(1) 8

(2) 12

(3) 9

(4) 6

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 2 1


90. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(States)

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Delhi

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Karnataka

List-II (Share of New Train in Railway Budget (2011-12)

(1) 12

(2) 21

(3) 13

(4) 9

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 1 2 2

(4) 3 4 1 2


91. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(States)

(a) Punjab

(b) Assam

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Haryana

List-II (Share of New Train in Railway Budget (2011-12)

(1) 3

(2) 5

(3) 6

(4) 2

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 2 1


92. Consider the following statements about Railways Budget (2011-12).the Railway One Rupee: Income-Comes.

(a) Goods traffic earnings – 65 paise

(b) Passenger earnings – 26 paise

(c) Other Coaching earnings – 3 paise

(d) Sundry other earnings – 3 paise

(e) Miscellaneous receipts – 3 paise

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (c) and (d)

(3) Only (e) and (d)

(4) All of the above


93. Consider the following statements about Railway s Budget (2011-12), the railway One Rupee: Expenditure –goes:

(a) Staff Wages and allowances – 42 paise

(b) Pension Fund – 17 paise

(c) Fuel – 16 paise

(d) Depriciation reserve fund – 2 paise

(e) Stores – 4 paise

(f) Dividend – 6 paise

(g) Lease Charges – 4 paise

(h) Miscellaneous expenditure – 9 paise

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a) and (b)

(2) Only (c) and (d)

(3) Only (e), (f), (g) and (h)

(4) All of the above


ECONOMIC SURVEY (2010-11)







94. According to Economic Survey (2011-11), as fiscal deflect stands revised at 4.8 percent of gross domestic product (GDP) for the current financial year against the Budget estimates of ___ percent.

(1) 4.5

(2) 5.5

(3) 6.5

(4) 7.5

95. The Economic Survey (2010-11) pegged the ___percent growth with a rider that global developments.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 10


96. Match the List-I with List-II.

List-(Items)

(a) Agriculture, foresty & fishing

(b) Manufacturing, construction, etc.

(c) Trade, hotels, transport and Communication

(d) Financing, insurance, realestate & business services

List-II (GDP annual growth (2009-10)

(1) 1.3%

(2) 8.1%

(3) 9.7%

(4) 9.2%

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 1 2 3 4

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 2 1


97. Economic Survey (2010-11) expects gross tax revenue to revive its share in GDP to____.

(1) 9.8 %

(2) 10.8%

(3) 11.8%

(4) 12.8%


98. According to Economic Survey (2010-11), India needs to invest ____ billion dollar in the Twelfth Plan (2012-17).

(1) 1.125

(2) 1.225

(3) 1.025

(4) 1.325


99. While the overall GDP has grown by 8.62% during 2004-05 to 2010-11, farm GDP has increased by only ____.

(1) 2.46%

(2) 3.46%

(3) 4.46%

(4) 5.46%


100. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11).

(a) Economic Survey sees GDP surging past 9% in year ahead

(b) Fiscal and revenue deflects seen at 4.8%, 3.5% of GDP

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of these


101. Consider the following statements about agenda for growth, stability:

(a) 2011-12 GDP growth seen at 9%, plus or minus 0.2%

(b) Agriculture growth at 5.4% in 2010-11, services at 9.6 %

(c) Food inflation seems driven by demand

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


102. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Economy to grow at least 9% next year and at higher rates in medium-to-long term.

(b) High saving and investment due to rising income levels and demographic factors – to support further growth.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of these.


103. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Inflation is a dominant concern, but here to stay –at least 1.5 percentage points higher due to strong growth.

(b) Further increase in interest rates likely

(c) Hints there could be sops for infrastructure financing in Budget

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


104. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Two types of bank license suggested for new entrants- one for basic banking another for commercial

(b) Environment added as a chapter for the first time, but the message is: green should not stifle growth

(c) Contradicts RBI on ‘teaser’ rates, says innovation has helped expand market

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


105. Consider the following statements are true?

(a) Direct cash transfers may help check leakage of subsidy

(b) Pitches for rate cap on micro-finance institutions

(c) Supports Bill to boost pensions business, wants government to push new pension Scheme

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


106. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Prices: The government warns of tougher times ahead

(b) Infrastructure: Projects, funds a problem, telecom the silver lining

(c) Retail: Survey bats for FDI in multi-brand retail

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


107. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Agriculture: Uphill task for farming, unless Green Revolution-II shows up

(b) Industry: Reforms, policy framework needed to sustain output growth

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4) None of these


108. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2010-11):

(a) Financial Inclusion: Broaden savings, integrated it into system to boost growth

(b) Fiscal Deflect: Introduction of GST Crucial to raise revenues, narrow gap

(3) Human Development: Strike free-a year of relative peace in industrial relations

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


UNION BUDGET (2011-12)


109. Consider the following statements about Economic Survey (2011-12):

(a) Credit flow for farmers raised from Rs. 3, 75,000 crore to Rs. 4, 75,000 crore in 2011-12.

(b) Allocation for infrastructure raised by 23.3 % to Rs. 2, 14,000 crore

(c) Allocation for education up by 24% to Rs. 52,057 crore: for health by 20% to Rs. 26,760 crore.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


110. According to Union Budget (2011-12), a substantial increase in allocation for Defence by 11.6 % to Rs. _____ crore.

(a) Exemption limit for individual taxpayers raised from Rs. 1.6 lakh, to Rs. 1.8 lakh, giving uniform tax relief of Rs. 2,000.

(b) Exemption limit raised for senior Citizens from Rs. 2.4 lakh to Rs. 2.5 lakh; the qualifying age of the rebate reduced from 65 to 60.

(c) Higher exemption limit for very senior Citizens (80 years and above) at Rs. 5 lakh.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


111. Consider the following statements about Indirect Tax:

(a) Central Excise Duty to be maintained at standard rate of 10%

(b) Nominal Central Excise Duty of 1% imposed on 130 items entering the tax net.

(c) Basic customs Duty reduced for specified agricultural machinery from 5% to 25%.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


113. Consider the following statements about Service Tax:

(a) Standard rate of service Tax retained at 10%

(b) Service Tax on air travel raised by Rs. 50 for domestic sector and Rs. 250 for international sector in economy class. In higher classes, it will be 10% flat.

(c) Proposal relating to Service Tax estimated to result in net revenue gain Rs. 4,000 crore.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a)

(2) Only (b)

(3) Only (c)

(4) All of the above


114. Direct Taxes code to be finalized for enactment during 2011-12; to be effective from ___.

(1) 1 April, 2012

(2) 1 April, 2011

(3) 1 June, 2012

(4) 1 May, 2011


115. Government Committed to retaining at least ___ ownership and management control of central public sector undertakings.

(1) 41%

(2) 51%

(3) 55%

(4) 60%


116. According to Union Budget (2011-12), housing loan limit under priority sector lending raised to Rs. ___lakh.

(1) 15

(2) 25

(3) 30)

(4) 35


117. According to Union Budget (2011-12), allocation for Bharat Nirman programme up by Rs. ____ crore from Rs. 58,000 crore.

(1) 10,000

(2) 11,000

(3) 12,000

(4) 13,000


118. According to Union Budget (2011-12), from 1 April, 2011, remunerating for Anganwadi workers increased from Rs. 1,500 to Rs. 3,000 a month and Anganwadi helpers from Rs. 750 to Rs. ____ a month.

(1) 1,000

(2) 1,200

(3) 1,500

(4) 2,000


119. According to Union Budget (2011-12), financial helps for Metro projects in Delhi, Mumbai Bangalore, Kolkatta and _____.

(1) Ahmedabad

(2) Kanpur

(3) Pune

(4) Chennai


120. Pranab Mukherjee has raised allocation under Rashtriya Krishi vikas Yojana to Rs. _____crore.

(1) 7,860

(2) 5,660

(3) 8,860

(4) 6,660


121. According to Union Budget (2011-12), which of the following items are cheaper?

(1) Bicycles

(2) Tea & coffee

(3) Desserts

(4) All of these


122. According to Union Budget (2011-12), which of the following items are cheaper?

(1) Dry Fruits

(2) Diapers

(3) CD, VCD & DVD

(4) All of these


123. According to Union Budget (2011-12), which of the following items are cheaper?

(1) Stationary

(2) Kitchenware

(3) Shade and Incense

(4) All of these


124. According to Union Budget (2011-12), which of the following items are cheaper?

(1) Wireless

(2) Snacks

(3) Purifiers

(4) All of these


125. According to Union Budget (2011-12), which of the following items are cheaper?

(1) Silk

(2) Medicines

(3) Only (1)

(4) Both (a) and (2)



ANSWERS


6. (2) Oman

7. (1) Six Pacts

8. (2) 2011-12

9. (2) U .S .A.

10. (1) Defence Programme

11. (3) June 30, 2011

12. (1) Telangala Issue

13. (2) Scrap Ammunition

14. (1) 2 March, 2011

15. (2) 2 March, 2011

16. (1) Libya

17. (4) All of the above

18. (4) All of the above

19. (2) Burj Khalifa

20. (2) Cancun

21. (2) Mongolia

22. (1) U.S .A.

23. (1) April 2011

24. (2) Hong Kong

25. (3) Forests

26. (3) Gujarat

27. (1) 26 February, 2011

28. (3) Kerala

29. (1) 5 March, 2011 to 9 March, 2011

30. (1) Budhadev Bhatacharya

31. (2) M. Karunanidhi

32. (2) M. Narendra

33. (1) C. Rangarajan

34. (2) Chanda Kochhar (a) (b) (c) (d)

35. (1) 1 2 3 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)

36. (1) 1 2 3 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)

37. (1) 1 2 3 4

38. (3) C. Rangarajan

39. (2) Research and Analysis Wing

40. (1) Harsh V. Pant

41. (1) February 24

42. (1) Chief Informatioon Commissioner

43. (4) Y. B. Reddy

44. (4) All of the above

45. (1) 3 March, 2011

46. (1) Virender Sehwag

47. (1) Ricky Pointing (a) (b) (c) (d)

48. (1) 1 2 3 4

49. (2) Stumpy

50. (3) S.P. Sethuraman

51. (2) Russia

52. (1) England

53.(3) Kolkata

54. (4) All of the above

55. (1) Water

56. (1) Tarapur

57. (3) 10.39%

58. (1) 28 February, 2011

59. (2) 25 February, 2011

60. (1) 25 February, 2011

61. (2) 3.5

62. (2) Consumer price Index for Agricultural Labour

63. (2) Interbank Mobile Payment service

64. (1) Spice Jet

65. (4) 1977

66. (1) Somar Jha

67. (2) 16.5

68. (1) 11.2

69. (4) All of the above

70. (3) 28

71. (2) 40

72. (1) 1,776

73. (3) 9,583

74. (1) 5,406

75. (2) 13,820

76. (4) All of the above

77. (3) 700

78. (2) Nagpur

79. (1) Pradhan Mantri Rail Vikas Yojana

80. (2) Go India

81. (4) 10

82. (1) 68,260 (a) (b) (c) (d)

83. (1) 1 2 3 4

84. (1) 7.6 %

85. (1) 91.1%

86. (2) 16,000

87. (1) 11

88. (1) 1 2 3 4 a b c d

89. (1) 1 2 3 4 a b c d

90. (1) 1 2 3 4 a b c d

91. (1) 1 2 3 4

92. (4) All of the above

93. (4) All of the above

94. (2) 5.5

95. (3) 9 (a) (b) (c) (d)

96. (1) 1 2 3 4 97. (2) 10.8%

98. (3) 1,025

99. (2) 3.46%

100. (3) Both (a) and (b)

101. (4) All of the above

102. (3) Both (a) and (b)

103. (4) All of the above

104. (4) All of the above

105. (4) All of the above

106. (4) All of the above

107. (3) Both (a) and (b)

108. (4) All of the above

109. (4) All of the above

110. (1) 1, 64,415

111. (4) All of the above

113. (4) All of the above

114. (1) 1 April, 2012

115. (2) 51%

116. (2) 25

117. (1) 10,000

118. (3) 1,500

119. (4) Chennai

120. (1) 7,860

121. (4) All of these

122. (4) All of these

123. (4) All of these

124. (4) All of these

125. (4) Both (1) and (2)


Thursday 5 April 2012

இந்திய பொருளாதாரம் (INDIAN ECONOMICS) No.1

 
 
1. 'Utility' in economics means the capacity to (Investigators' Exam, 1990)

(a) Provide comforts (b) Earn an income

(c) Satisfy human wants (d) Satisfy human motives


2. Debt service ratio implies ratio between (C.D.S. 1992)

(a) Import and debt

(b) Export and principal plus and payment on debt

(c) Domestic saving and import

(d) Domestic saving and export


3. With what aspect of commerce are 'Bull' and 'Bear' associated?

(a) Banking (b) Foreign trade

(c) Stock market (d) internal trade


4. Saving is a function of (Stenos' Exam, 1992)

(a) Investment (b) Income

(c) Export (d) Improvement in productivity


5. The terms 'Bears' and 'Bulls' refer to those speculators who believe that prices of shares will

(a) Go up and come down respectively

(b) Come down and go up respectively

(c) Go up and remain constant respectively

(d) Come down and remain constant respectively


6. A deflator is a technique of (1.A.S. 1992)

(a) Adjusting for changes in price level

(b) Adjusting for change in commodity

(c) Accounting for higher increase of GNP

(d) Accounting for decline of GNP


7. A dual economy means simultaneous co-existence of

(a) Export and domestic sectors

(b) Public and private sectors

(c) Mining and manufacturing

(d) Features of advanced and backward economies


8. A socialist state is the one in which there is

(a) Only private ownership of the factors of production

(b) Monopoly owner ship only

(c) Only state and collective ownership of means of production

(d) Only joint owner ship of the means of production


9. Recession is that economic state of a country when there is

(a) Accumulation of unsold stocks

(b) Slump in trade and industry

(c) Fall in consumer demand

(d) All the above


10. Income that is saved and not invested is known as

(a) Capital (c) Deposit

(b) Hoarding (d) None of these


11. The concept of Joint Sector implies association between (Stenographer's Exam, 1991)

(a) Small and large industries

(b) State and Central Govt enterprises

(c) Indian and multinational companies

(d) Public sector and private sector industries


12. 'Factor Payment' is

(a) Splitting up payment liability into convenient installments spread over time.

(b) Splitting up payment liability into cash and credit components.

(c) Negotiating current sales prices subject to guaranteed supply of goods in future. _

(d) None of these.


13. Buyer's market denotes the place where

(a) The supply exceeds the demand.

(b) The demand exceeds the supply.

(c) The demand and supply are well balanced.

(d) Commodities are available at competitive rates.


14. Which of the following is the correct description of the term 'tainted shares'? (Bank, P.O. 1994)

(a) The shares purchased by NRIs

(b) The shares which were involved in the case of securities scam

(c) The shares whose price falls by more than 20 points in a day

(d) The shares the price of which falls continuously for seven days


15. A loan bearing low rate of interest is known as (I. Tax, 1989)

(a) Hard loan (b) Soft loan

(c) Capital loan (d) Real loan


16. 'Closed economy' means an economy having

(a) Exports only (b) Imports only

(c) No exports or imports (d) Controlled supply of money


17. White goods are (UJD.C. 1993)

(a) Basic raw materials

(b) Cosmetic articles

(c) Goods imported from the western countries

(d) Durable consumption goods


18. Sellers market denotes a situation where (CD.S. 1992)

(a) Commodities are available at competitive rates

(b) Demand exceeds supply

(c) Supply exceeds demand

(d) Supply and demand are evenly balanced


19. MODVAT refers to

(a) Export value of a commodity

(b) Value generated by exports

(c) Value added to manufacturing cost

(d) Money generated by import and export


20. 'Mixed Economy' means (N.D.A. 1994)

(a) Co-existence of small scale and large scale industries

(b) Co-existence of the rich and the poor

(c) Co-existence of private and public sector

(d) Assigning equal importance to both agriculture and heavy industries


21. Which of the following best define the term 'Letter of Credit' as used frequently in bank transactions? (S.B.I.P.0.1991)

(a) An order from a bank to another bank abroad authorising the payment of a particular amount to a person named in the letter.

(b) An unconditional undertaking given by a bank ensuring the payment of a particular amount to the drawee at a given date.

(c) Letter by a bank to a person stating the terms and conditions of the loan sanctioned to Jiim by the bank.

(d) Statement showing outstanding deposits and credits of a bank for a particular period.


22. Unemployment which occurs when workers move from one job to another job is known as (I.A.S.1992)

(a) Seasonal unemployment (b) Frictional unemployment

(c) Cyclical unemployment (d) Technological unemployment


23. GNP (Gross National Product) is the money value of (Assistant Grade, 1992)

(a) Final goods and services produced annually in the economy

(b) Annual service generation in the economy

(c) Tangible goods available in the economy

(d) Tangible goods produced annually in the economy


24. Development means economic growth plus (U.D.C. 1995)

(a) Inflation (b) Deflation

(c) Price stability (d) Social change


25. BOP (Balance of Payment) refers to

(a) Transactions in the flow of capital.

(b) Transactions relating to receipts and payment of invisibles.

(c) Transactions relating only to exports and imports.

(d) Systematic record of all its economic transaction with the rest of the world.


26. The marginal revenue product schedule is a firm's

(a) Ratio of total revenue to output

(b) Resource supply schedule

(c) Resource demand schedule

(d) Product supply schedule


27. 'Dear Money' means

(a) Low rate of interest (b) High rate of interest (c) Depression (d) Inflation


28. Demand means

(a) The desire of the society to buy certain necessities at a given price per unit of time.

(b) Willingness and ability of an individual to buy goods and services at a given price and time.

(c) The desire of an individual for goods and services needed by him.

(d) Ability of the society to buy goods and services.


29. A Multinational is (C.D.S. 1991)

(a) A company operating in several countries.

(b) A company having share holders from more than one country.

(c) A company which does charitable work in poor countries.

(d) A company that operates only in those countries that do not have import restrictions.


30. Which of the following best explains the term 'contraband goods'?

(a) Goods that are wholly imported.

(b) Goods produced only for exports.

(c) Goods for the trading of which license is not required.

(d) Goods that are forbidden from export, import or even possession, by law.


31. 'Take off stage' in an economy means (C.B.1.1990)

(a) Steady growth begins.

(b) Economy is stagnant.

(c) Economy is about to collapse.

(d) All controls are removed.


32. What is meant by 'Capital Gain'?

(a) Part of profits added to the capital.

(b) Appreciation in the money value of assets.

(c) Additions to the capital invested in a business.

(d) None of these.


33. 'Limited liability' means

(a) The number of shares in the company is strictly limited.

(b) All shareholders have the same liability for the company's debt.

(c) Shareholder is only liable for the debts of the company to the extent of the unpaid value of his shares.

(d) All share holders except ordinary shareholders enjoy limited liability.


34. 'A formal evaluation of an individual's or company's credit history and capability of repaying obligations' is known as (Bank P.O. 1995)

(a) Amortization (b) Net Asset Value

(c) Credit rating (d) Cash Credit

(e) Current Ratio


35. The Phillips Curve represents the relationship between

(a) Wages and prices

(b) Unemployment and wages

(c) Unemployment and prices

(d) Unemployment and national income


36. The balance of payment comprises (Assistant Grade, 1992)

(a) Official settlement account.

(b) A current account of goods and services

(c) A capital account of financial assets

(d) All the above


37. The State's action under which a creditor's right to take action against a debtor for realisation of debt money is kept under suspension for a specified period is called

(a) Rationalization (b) Ceiling

(c) Embargo (d) Moratorium


38. Equilibrium price is that price which (Stenographer's Exam, 1994)

(a) Maximizes producer's profit

(b) Equates consumers and producers surplus

(c) Maximizes consumer's satisfaction

(d) Equates supply and demand


39. Disguised employment is a situation in which the number of persons employed on a job as compared to what is required is

(a) Less (b) More

(c) Equal (d) Indefinite


40. What is 'Recession'?

(a) Rise in the cost of production, especially because of wage increases.

(b) Increase in money supply without a matching increase in production.

(c) Reduction in production and employment for want of sufficient demand for goods.

(d) None of these.


41. Capital goods' refer to goods which

(a) Serve as a source of raising further capital.

(b) Help in the further production of goods.

(c) Directly go into the satisfaction of human wants.

(d) Find multiple uses.


42. Invisible trade is a trade (I.A.S. 1992)

(a) Of government with public institutions.

(b) Of the services like the bank, marine companies and shipping companies.

(c) Of corporate and financial institutions with government.

(d) Of government with other countries.


43. Secular stagnation refers to (Central Excise, 1991)

(a) A stagnant economy.

(b) Recurring booms and depressions in the economy.

(c) Decrease in the marginal rate of growth in successive period.

(d) Fluctuations in autonomous investment.


44. The basic characteristic of oligopoly is

(a) A few sellers, a few buyers

(b) A few sellers, many buyers

(c) A few sellers, one buyer

(d) Many sellers, a few buyers


45. Temporary tax levied to obtain additional revenue is called

(a) Cess (b) Rate

(c) Fee (d) Surcharge


46. Black money is

(a) Counterfeit currency

(b) Illegally earned money

(c) Money earned through underhand deals

(d) Income on which payment of tax is usually evaded


47. The statement that 'economics is positive and not normative' means that

(a) It is a study of needs verses affluence.

(b) Economics tells the policy makers which alternative to choose from among several efficient ones.

(c) The wants of human beings are unlimited.

(d) None of these.


48. The consumer's surplus can be defined as

(a) Total consumer satisfaction.

(b) Difference between actual price and the potential price.

(c) Extra units of a commodity bought.

(d) Surplus commodity left after consumption.


49. 'Ceteris paribus' means

(a) Other things being equal.

(b) Constant demand condition.

(c) Most efficient resource allocation.

(d) Other things do not remain the same.


50. The term 'Dumping' refers to (C.B.I. 1997)

(a) The sale of a sub-standard commodity.

(b) Sale in a foreign market of a commodity at a price below marginal cost

(c) Sale in a foreign market of a commodity just at marginal cost without too much of profit.

(d) Smuggling of goods without paying any customs duty.


ANSWERS

I. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6.(a) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9(d) 10.(b)

11.(d) 12. (d) 13(a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18(b) 19. (c) 20. (c)

21. (c) 22.(b) 23.(a) 24.(d) 25.(d) 26.(c) 27.(b) 28.(b)29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (e) 35.(d) 36.(d) 37(d) 38.(d) 39. (b) 40. (c)

41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (b)45.(d) 46(d) 47.(b) 48.(b)49. (a) 50. (b)